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E20-097 exam questions

EMC Technology Foundations-Backup and Recovery

  • Exam Number/Code : E20-097
  • Exam Name : EMC Technology Foundations-Backup and Recovery
  • Questions and Answers : 117 Q&As

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EMC E20-097

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Related exam:
E20-001 Storage Technology Foundations (Information Storage and Mgmt)
E20-520 calriion solutions specialist exam
E20-597 Backup & Recovery Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators

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E20-097 practice tests

E20-097 Exam Description
Questions and Answers:117 Q&As

Updated: 2009-10-30
Exam Number/Code: E20-097
Exam Name: EMC Technology Foundations-Backup and Recovery

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E20-097 study guide

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E20-097 Exam Description
Questions and Answers:117 Q&As

Updated: 2009-10-30
Exam Number/Code: E20-097
Exam Name: EMC Technology Foundations-Backup and Recovery

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E20-001 Latest Exam

E20-001 Exam Description
Questions and Answers:283 Q&As

Updated: 2009-10.28
Exam Number/Code: E20-001
Exam Name: Storage Technology Foundations (Information Storage and Mgmt)

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1. Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B?
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 3 hours
D. 4 hours
Answer: B

2. What is a remote replication solution for EMC CLARiiON storage systems?
A. MirrorView/A
B. SnapView
C. SRDF/AR
D. TimeFinder
Answer: A

3. Which represents a common implementation of a storage network with limited scalability?
A. CSMA/CD
B. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop
C. Store and Forward
D. Switched Fabric
Answer: B

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E22-181 Real Exam Answers

E22-181 Exam Description
Questions and Answers:192 Q&As

Updated: 2009-09-05
Exam Number/Code: E22-181
Exam Name: emc legato emailxtender administrator exam

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Exam : EMC E22-181
Title : EMC Legato Emailxtender Administrator Exam

1. Company XYZ is planning to buy EmailXtender Archive Edition. Its criteria is to archive all messages sent outside the company domain and exclude everything else.
What does Company XYZ need to do?
A. Configure an exclusion rule for all internal mail
B. Configure an inclusion rule for all mail sent outside the company
C. Configure an inclusion rule for all mail sent outside the company and an exclusion rule for all internal mail
D. Upgrade to EmailXtender Full Edition
Answer: D

2. A customer wants to use EMC Centera to archive messages from EmailXtender.
Which application is configured with EmailXtender to perform this operation?
A. Audit Utility
B. DiskXtender
C. EmailXtract
Answer: B

3. Which EmailXtender component can be leveraged to perform archival of historic email messages from restored backup tapes in response to a legal discovery request?
A. EmailXtract
B. HealthCheck
C. Search Plug-in
Answer: A

4. Which EmailXtender information is stored in the Windows registry?
A. Audit trail information
B. Polling rights
C. Rule refresh frequency
Answer: C

5. Which function is performed by EmailXtender Archive Edition?
A. Instant message capturing
B. Realtime archiving
C. Scheduled archiving
D. Spam email elimination
Answer: C

6. Comet Investments is using an evaluation version of EmailXtender Archive Edition. Comet wants users to be able to archive their own messages using the user-directed archiving feature.
What should the EmailXtender administrator do first?
A. Buy a license for Archive Edition
B. Create a user-directed folder structure
C. Upgrade to EmailXtender Full Edition, evaluation version
D. Upgrade to EmailXtender Full Edition, licensed version
Answer: D

7. Which group membership is required for the EmailXtender service account?
A. Domain admins
B. Enterprise administrator
C. Local system administrator
D. Supervisor
Answer: A

8. What is the purpose of a journaling mailbox in an EmailXtender environment?
A. Queue messages for indexing
B. Store messages temporarily
C. Store pointers to shortcuts
D. Transfer messages to EmailXtract
Answer: B

9. Where is information about the EmailXtender supported mail server versions located?
A. Administrator’s Guide
B. Installation Manual
C. Messaging Current Product Compatibility Guide
D. Online Help
Answer: C

10. Which regulatory objective does EmailXtender address?
A. Blocking (quarantining) of email if it contains inappropriate content
B. Ensuring privacy (encryption) of email as it moves across a public infrastructure (Internet)
C. Executing a discovery request against archived email records
D. Randomly flagging messages for review
Answer: C

11. Which tool provides an estimate of the required disk space for an EmailXtender installation?
A. Archive Sizer
B. Disk Space Calculator
C. EmailXtender Sizing Calculator
D. File System Analyzer
Answer: C

12. What does the archive process do?
A. Copies all incoming or outgoing mail to a mailbox
B. Moves copied mail from the mail server to a storage location on the EmailXtender server
C. Organizes messages by content
D. Replaces messages on a mail server with pointers to the message in EmailXtender
Answer: B

13. By default, when container files are imported from a different EmailXtender server, where are they placed?
A. Import folder
B. Index cabinet
C. Lost and Found
D. New cabinet
Answer: C

14. What is the minimum amount of information necessary to calculate the amount of space used to collect and index email for a given timeframe?
A. Number of messages per user and number of working days
B. Number of messages per user, percentages of messages with attachments, and average attachment size
C. Number of users, average message size, number of messages per user per day, and number of working days
D. Number of users, size of mailbox, and average message size
Answer: C

15. What is a requirement for EmailXtender installation?
A. Adobe Acrobat Reader
B. EmailXtender license
C. EMC DiskXtender
D. Service account member of domain admin
Answer: D

16. For what does EmailXtender use its SQL database?
A. Duplicate detection
B. EmailXtender configuration
C. Full-text indexing
D. User identities
Answer: A

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E20-611 Real Exam Answers

E20-611 Exam Description
Questions and Answers:142 Q&As

Updated: 2009-08-13
Exam Number/Code: E20-611
Exam Name: CLARiiON Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist

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Exam : EMC E20-611
Title : EMC CLARiiON Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist

1. What is indicated in a CX4 if the Fault LED on an SP is blinking blue at a frequency of 1 Hz?
A. FLARE is ready for I/O.
B. POST is starting the OS.
C. The FLARE drivers are starting.
D. The SP is executing POST.
Answer: C

2. Which CX4 model supports SATA-II drives as vault drives?
A. CX4-120
B. CX4-240
C. CX4-480
D. CX4-960
Answer: A

3. Which CX4 array model has a maximum number of one back-end Fibre Channel port per storage processor (SP)?
A. CX4-120
B. CX4-240
C. CX4-480
D. CX4-960
Answer: A

4. Your customer has ordered a CX4-960 configured from the factory for only 480 drives. The customer now wants to upgrade to the 960-drive version of the CLARiiON.
What needs to happen to the CLARiiON to upgrade the CX4-960 to support the full amount of disks?
A. Need to install a software upgrade only as the I/O devices are already installed
B. Need to install the new DAE3Ps and disks only; no I/O modules or software required
C. Need to install the new I/O modules and a software upgrade to get the full supported disk amount
D. Need to install the new I/O modules only; the software is already installed for the upgrade
Answer: C

5. Click the Exhibit button.
In which slot is the iSCSI module installed?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C

6. A customer has a DAE3P configured and running at 4 Gb/s back-end speed, and you install a 2 Gb/s-only drive in the enclosure.
What will the DAE3P do with the new drive?
A. It will add the drive at 2 Gb/s back-end speed with no issues and initialize it.
B. It will add the drive at 4 Gb/s back-end speed with no issues and initialize it.
C. It will change the back-end speed of the entire enclosure to match the 2 Gb/s drive.
D. It will not add the drive to the loop due to the incompatible drive speed.
Answer: D

7. How many UltraFlex I/O module slots are available in a CX4-960 array?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
Answer: D

8. Your customer has MirrorView installed and configured on their CX4-480, and they are installing two additional FE UltraFlex I/O modules in the array.
Will the MirrorView ports on the array need to be reconfigured and moved to the highest numbered ports on the new modules?
A. No. The CLARiiON will automatically move the ports to the highest numbered port on the array.
B. No. The ports will not need to be reconfigured; the ports will stay the same.
C. Yes. The ports will need to be auto-assigned by the SPs and moved accordingly.
D. Yes. The ports will need to be reconfigured in Navisphere Manager to the highest port numbers.
Answer: B

9. It is best practice to place the iSCSI I/O module in the I/O annex first on which CX4 model?
A. CX4-120
B. CX4-240
C. CX4-480
D. CX4-960
Answer: D

10. How many power supplies/blower modules are needed to start mirrored write caching on a CLARiiON CX4-480?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

11. How many GB of memory are installed in each CX4-960 SP?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
Answer: B

12. How many fans are in a CX4-960 fan pack?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

13. How many BE ports does a CX4-480 array have?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: B

14. On a CLARiiON CX4-960 array what is the maximum number of drives supported on each back-end loop?
A. 120
B. 240
C. 480
D. 960
Answer: A

15. How many GB of memory are installed in each CX4-480 SP?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: B

16. Click the Exhibit button.
In the illustration, how should the I/O Annex correspond to the SPs from left to right?
A. SPA, SPA, SPB, SPB
B. SPA, SPB, SPA, SPB
C. SPB, SPA, SPB, SPA
D. SPB, SPB, SPA, SPA
Answer: D

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