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Exam : ISEB BH0-006
Title : ITIL V3 Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management

1. Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT?
1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action
2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: C

2. The BEST definition of an Incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption or reduction in the quality of an IT Service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the Service Desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not
Answer: B

3. Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?
1. Risk assessment
2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
3. Monitoring of component availability
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: B

4. Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and efficient use of:
A. People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B. People, Process, Products, Technology
C. People, Process, Products, Partners
D. People, Products, Technology, Partners
Answer: C

5. What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:
1. What is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
6. ?
A. What is the Return On Investment (ROI)?
B. How much did it cost?
C. How do we keep the momentum going?
D. What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?
Answer: C

6. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Provider Type?
A. Internal service provider
B. External service provider
C. Third-party provider
D. Shared services unit
Answer: C

7. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
B. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
Answer: B

8. The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Continual Service Improvement
B. Service Strategy
C. Service Design
D. Service Transition
Answer: B

9. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?
A. Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed
B. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
C. They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust
D. They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language
Answer: B

10. Which of the following activities is NOT a part of the Deming Cycle?
A. Act
B. Plan
C. Do
D. Coordinate
Answer: D

11. Which processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis?
A. Supplier Management and Service Level Management
B. Supplier Management and Demand Management
C. Demand Management and Service Level Management
D. Supplier Management, Demand Management and Service Level Management
Answer: A

12. Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?
A. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
B. Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts
C. Development, negotiation and agreement of the Service Portfolio
D. Development, negotiation and agreement of organizational Level Agreements (OLAs)
Answer: B

13. Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?
A. Processes and functions
B. Maturity and cost
C. The end to end service
D. Infrastructure availability
Answer: C

14. Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A. Service Level Management
B. Service Catalogue Management
C. Demand Management
D. Service Transition
Answer: B

15. Which of the following BEST describes ‘Partners’ in the phrase "People, Processes, Products and Partners"?
A. Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors
B. Customers
C. Internal departments
D. The Facilities Management function
Answer: A

16. Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition?
A. Measurement, methods and metrics
B. Service Design Package
C. Service Portfolio Design
D. Process definitions
Answer: B

　
　
Exam : ISEB BH0-007
Title : ISEB Intermediate Certificate in Software Testing

1. A computerised system is being created to monitor the life support system on board a submarine. It monitors air quality, water supplies and temperature.
This system will be supplied and maintained by SubsInc. SubsInc uses the V-model for software development and conducts four levels of testing, from unit through to operational and site acceptance testing.
Two key risks identified for the air quality system are:
1. If the percentage of oxygen in the air falls too low, personnel may suffocate
2. If the concentration of carbon dioxide in the air rises too high, the air may become toxic.
To address these risks, the requirement specification for this system includes the following requirements:
R1) Oxygen must be replaced as it is consumed.
R2) Carbon dioxide must be removed from the air.
These requirements must be reflected in the functional, technical and program specification documents.
You are a newly recruited test manager.
A risk register has been produced with the following additional risks identified. Which one is a product risk associated with the air quality management system?
A. The system required to monitor oxygen levels may be more expensive than those required to monitor air temperatures.
B. SubsInc may need to recruit extra developers and testers to deliver the project on time.
C. Oxygen levels may reach dangerously low levels.
D. Extreme temperatures may lead to heat exhaustion of personnel.
Answer: C

2. Data is transmitted over the internet as a series of packets. Each packet is sent to its destination via the best available route. The decision on the best available route is made by a series of routers on the internet.
In order to make the best decision on the route to take, the router:
1) Scans the destination address and matches it against rules set up in a configuration table.
2) Checks the performance of the primary connection to see if it is good enough to send the packet. If not, it seeks an alternative.
Routers handle many millions of packets being sent at the same time.
Packets can take the form of email messages, data files etc.
Which of the following best describes a testing challenge of the application domain of the routers described?
A. Testing that the receivers PC can store emails routed to it.
B. Testing that large organisations can scan incoming files routed to them for viruses.
C. Testing that packets are delivered by the routers in the required timescales.
D. Testing that files can be sent in any language.
Answer: C

3. Data is transmitted over the internet as a series of packets. Each packet is sent to its destination via the best available route. The decision on the best available route is made by a series of routers on the internet.
In order to make the best decision on the route to take, the router:
1) Scans the destination address and matches it against rules set up in a configuration table.
2) Checks the performance of the primary connection to see if it is good enough to send the packet. If not, it seeks an alternative.
Routers handle many millions of packets being sent at the same time.
Packets can take the form of email messages, data files etc.
Which of the following would be applicable as part of a test policy for testing these types of systems?
a. Systems must be tested for compliance to industry standard routing protocols.
b. Testing for the latest upgrade will require testing of increased network traffic of 100%.
c. Testing for the fix will require the use of dynamic analysis tools.
d. Releases will not be made if systems have any high priority defects outstanding.
A. a and b.
B. a and d.
C. b and c.
D. b and d.
Answer: B

4. Data is transmitted over the internet as a series of packets. Each packet is sent to its destination via the best available route. The decision on the best available route is made by a series of routers on the internet.
In order to make the best decision on the route to take, the router:
1) Scans the destination address and matches it against rules set up in a configuration table.
2) Checks the performance of the primary connection to see if it is good enough to send the packet. If not, it seeks an alternative.
Routers handle many millions of packets being sent at the same time.
Packets can take the form of email messages, data files etc.
A serious issue has arisen with emails arriving at the wrong destinations. This is an intermittent problem, and seems to occur only at peak loading times.
Which of the following reviews would you recommend to address this issue?
A. A walkthrough of the requirement specification, to check for errors.
B. A management review of defects logged and cleared to see if defects are being addressed correctly.
C. A technical review of the industry standard routing protocols to see if they have inaccuracies in them.
D. An inspection of the code for this part of the functionality to try to localise the defective parts of the code.
Answer: D

5. If the concentration of carbon dioxide in the air rises too high, the air may become toxic.
To address these risks, the requirement specification for this system includes the following requirements:
R1) Oxygen must be replaced as it is consumed.
R2) Carbon dioxide must be removed from the air.
These requirements must be reflected in the functional, technical and program specification documents.
You are a newly recruited test manager.
A risk register has been produced with the following additional risks identified. Which one is a product risk associated with the air quality management system?
A. The system required to monitor oxygen levels may be more expensive than those required to monitor air temperatures.
B. SubsInc may need to recruit extra developers and testers to deliver the project on time.
C. Oxygen levels may reach dangerously low levels.
D. Extreme temperatures may lead to heat exhaustion of personnel.
Answer: C
2. Your organisation is a large media services corporation (MSC).
MSC uses Agile development, within a Scrum framework. Here, the iterations are referred to as Sprints. For each Sprint, a set of user-stories is defined, built, and tested. The user-stories are typically 1-2 lines long, indicating what the customer wants the system to do.
MSC is in the process of updating its website to meet the recently introduced accessibility rules for websites. Accessibility means the availability of a system suitable to members of the public with, for example, visual or hearing difficulties.
It has been decided to start with two requirements, as its first 2 Sprints:
1) Presentation of content with clear headings, short sentences, text versions always available.
2) Consistent navigation through the website.
You are the test manager and there are four developers and two testers. You have all worked together previously, and are very experienced in MSCs products. Although the accessibility rules are new to you and the team, you have all attended a workshop where they were explained.
Which of the following are product risks and which are project risks?
a. The navigation through some parts of the website may need to be different from others.
b. Sprint 1 may not be completed on time, leading to a delay to the start of Sprint 2.
c. Text versions of images may not always be possible.
d. There may be a need to buy a capture-replay tool for regression testing.
e. A key member of the team may leave before the Sprints have been completed.
A. a, b and c are product risks, d and e are project risks.
B. a and c are products risks, b, d and e are project risks.
C. b, c and e are product risks, a and d are project risks.
D. a, d and e are product risks, b and c are project risks.
Answer: B

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Exam : ISEB BH0-002
Title : ISEB FOUNDATION CERTIFICATE IN PROGRAMME/PROJECT SUPPORT

1. Complete the following statement choosing the most appropriate option from those below. "The design authority is responsible for."
A. Co-ordinating the overall programme and constituent projects
B. The programme
C. Business integrity within the programme
D. Technical integrity across projects
Answer: D

2. The Internal Rate of Return is:
A. The Discount Rate which produces the highest NPV
B. The Discount Rate which produces the lowest NPV
C. The Discount Rate which matches the normal bank interest rate
D. The Discount Rate which produces a zero NPV
Answer: D

3. Complete the following statement choosing the most appropriate option from those below. "The Programme Manager is responsible for.."
A. The programme
B. Technical integrity across projects
C. Co-ordinating the overall programme and constituent projects
D. Business integrity within the programme
Answer: C

4. The overall responsibility for monitoring and managing the project risk log should be taken by which role
A. Project Manager
B. Risk Owner
C. Project Sponsor
D. Project Support Co-ordinator
Answer: A

5. Which level of plan forms the basis of the project managers day to day control?
A. Stage / Tranche
B. Individuals
C. Project
D. Team
Answer: A

6. Which of the following options is NOT a step in a Quality Review?
A. Follow up actions
B. Preparation
C. Review Process
D. Production of the deliverable
Answer: D

7. The primary objective of the configuration control process is to ensure that deliverables / products are:
A. Not changed once completed without approval
B. Logged at inception
C. Audited following changes
D. Given an unique ID
Answer: A

8. A Feasibility Study is undertaken to:
A. Produce definitive costs and timescales
B. Explore the value of commissioning a business project
C. Appoint people into roles
D. Satisfy audit requirements
Answer: B

9. The text of an Exception Report will typically comprise of:
A. The cause, the impact, the options, the recommendations
B. How deliverables will be accepted, the reasons for the project, the division of the project into stages
C. How the project will be controlled, roles and responsibilities, who the customer is
D. What happened, when it happened, who made it happen
Answer: A

10. Who has responsibility for Quality Planning?
A. Project Office
B. Project Team member
C. Project Manager
D. End User
Answer: C

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Exam : ISEB BH0-004
Title : ISEB ISTQB Certificate in Software Testing

1. For which of the following would a static analysis tool be MOST useful?
A. Supporting reviews.
B. Validating models of the software.
C. Testing code executed in a special test harness.
D. Enforcement of coding standards.
Answer: D

2. Where may functional testing be performed?
A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B. At all test levels.
C. At all levels above integration testing.
D. At the acceptance testing level only.
Answer: B

3. As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?
A. Test planning.
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C. Test closure.
D. Test control.
Answer: A

4. Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?
A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.
Answer: A

5. Given the following decision table:
Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.
Answer: A

6. Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: B

7. Match the following terms and statements.
A. 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W.
B. 1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y.
C. 1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y.
D. 1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W.
Answer: A

8. From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration Management?
A. ii, iv and v.
B. ii, iii and iv.
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i, iii and v.
Answer: C

9. A wholesaler sells printer cartridges.
The minimum order quantity is 5.
There is a 20% discount for orders of 100 or more printer cartridges.
You have been asked to prepare test cases using various values for the number of printer cartridges ordered.
Which of the following groups contain three test inputs that would be generated using Boundary Value Analysis?
A. 5, 6, 20
B. 4, 5, 80.
C. 4, 5, 99.
D. 1, 20, 100.
Answer: C

10. Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a testing tool?
A. i, ii, iii.
B. ii, iii, iv.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. i, ii, iv.
Answer: D

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Exam : ISEB BH0-005
Title : ISEB Certificate in Software Asset Management Essentials

1. Which of the following is NOT one of the SAM Logistics processes?
A. Requirements definition
B. Retirement.
C. Licensing Compliance
D. Procurement.
Answer: C

2. What is the essential FIRST step in initiating a SAM project?
A. Deploy a software usage tool to identify the scale of the problem and document all associated risks
B. Develop and communicate an overall SAM policy
C. Develop and implement a SAM processes and procedures
D. Develop a clear vision and strategy that is owned by senior management.
Answer: D

3. There is a need to reduce the number of SAM reports produced. Which of the following is the LEAST necessary?
A. The number of software related calls to the Service Desk
B. The cost of a site licence for existing software
C. The number of deployed licenses for each item of software
D. The number of new software licenses required.
Answer: A

4. Which of the following should be included in the Business Case documentation?
A. All
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3.
Answer: A

5. Which one of these organisations is responsible for ensuring that the software in use is genuine?
A. Original Equipment Manufacturer
B. Publisher
C. Software reseller
D. None, the onus is on the user organisation.
Answer: D

6. Which of the following organisations would you LEAST expect to contact for advice on SAM?
A. BSA
B. BSI
C. FAST
D. itSMF.
Answer: D

7. An organisations software policy should include information in many areas.
Which of the above areas should be included?
A. All of them
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: C

8. What is the MOST essential activity that should be done after the Business Case is approved and is often overlooked?
A. Continue to sell the business case to users
B. Communicate project progress
C. Show stakeholders the results
D. Include interested parties in the project kick off meeting.
Answer: A

9. What is important to establish within an organisation before buying any SAM tool?
A. Funding
B. Culture
C. Technology framework
D. Business Case.
Answer: B

10. Which of the following BEST describes the process of license novation?
A. SAM team must inform re-seller that license has been transferred to another department.
B. Software manufacturer allows usage rights to be changed.
C. Software manufacturer allows ownership in unwanted software licenses to be sold to another organisation
D. Software manufacturer allows the transfer of software licenses and contracts when an organisation reforms itself or restructures.
Answer: D

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Exam : ISEB BH0-001
Title : IT Service Management Foundation

1. In ITSCM, Risk Analysis has three elements used in the calculation to establish risk, which of the following is NOT one of them?
A. Asset
B. Threat
C. Impact
D. Vulnerability
Answer: C

2. Which of these is a short-term benefit of introducing Service Level Management?
A. Less calls to the Service Desk
B. Cost of IT services is reduced
C. Customer requirements are established
D. Significant improvements in service levels
Answer: C

3. Which process is responsible for identifying and recording the root cause of an Incident that leads to a reduction of service availability?
A. Incident Management
B. Availability Management
C. Problem Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: C

4. Service Management can best be described as:
A. The advancement of the business through sound technology
B. The advancement of the business through quality IT services
C. The better use of technology through partnership with the business
D. The better deployment of support resources to recover costs
Answer: B

5. The process to implement SLAs comprises the following activities in which sequence?
A. Draft SLAs, review Underpinning Contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue service levels, agree SLAs
B. Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate service levels, agree SLAs
C. Review Underpinning Contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue services, negotiate, agree SLAs
D. Draft SLAs, catalogue services, review Underpinning Contracts and OLAs, establish SLRs, negotiate, agree SLRs
Answer: B

6. Which of the following activities is NOT associated with proactive prevention of Problems?
A. Problem Classification
B. Problem Trend Analysis
C. Targeting Support Action
D. Providing information about potential problems to the organisation
Answer: A

7. When building a Cost Model, the cost of providing licences for users to access programs from their PCs would be included in:
A. Software costs
B. Hardware costs
C. People costs
D. Documentation costs
Answer: A

8. Following the release of a software upgrade to fix a Known Error, which process is responsible for ensuring that the CMDB is updated correctly?
A. Change Management
B. Problem Management
C. Release Management
D. Configuration Management
Answer: D

9. Which of these statements is correct?
1 Effective Change Management ensures that urgency and impact are used to make decisions on the scheduling of Changes
2 Change Management controls all aspects of the change process
A. Both of them
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. Neither of them
Answer: A

10. For which of the following activities is the Service Desk NOT responsible?
A. Escalation
B. Categorisation and prioritisation
C. Impact analysis
D. Root cause identification
Answer: D