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Exam : Juniper JN0-532
Title : FWV,Specialist(JNCIS-FWV)

1. 1.10.5 ip-prot 6
What will be the resulting output in the debug for which this was created?
A. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 or a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 or has TCP as its protocol then it will be captured
B. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 or a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 or has UDP as its protocol then it will be captured
C. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 and a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 and has TCP as its protocol then it will be captured
D. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 and a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 and has UDP as its protocol then it will be captured
Answer: C
4. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which two can be determined about the VPN? (Choose two.)
A. NAT-traversal is enabled.
B. The rekey interval is 8 hours.
C. This device initiated the Phase 1 negotiations.
D. The certificate used in this exchange is set to never expire.
Answer: BC
5. You have created a virtual router called VSYSA-vr and made it shareable. You then create the VSYS using the WebUI, telling it to use an existing VR and selecting the VR called VSYSA-vr.
What is the status of the virtual router after you create the VSYS?
A. The router will be the default router but will no longer be shared.
B. The router will be the default router and will still have a shareable status.
C. The system will not let you use a shared virtual router when you create a new VSYS. The initial virtual router must be private.
D. The system will not create a private vr for the VSYS but will assign the untrust-vr as the default router. The shared Virtual router will not be the default router.
Answer: B
6. Click the Exhibit button.
Review the exhibit. Track-ip has failed on the device, but the device did not fail over to the second unit in the cluster:
Why has failover not occurred?
A. The physical interfaces have not failed.
B. The track-ip interval is not sufficient to cause failover.
C. The track-ip address weight is not sufficient to cause failover.
D. The track-ip address threshold is not sufficient to cause failover.
Answer: C
7. Which three OSPF parameters are interface parameters? (Choose three.)
A. cost
B. priority
C. neighbor list
D. summarization
E. advertise default route
Answer: ABC
8. To which three ScreenOS components can a policy-based routing policy be bound? (Choose three.)
A. zone
B. policy
C. interface
D. virtual router
E. virtual system
Answer: ACD
9. Which ScreenOS CLI command is necessary for configuring IGMP on interface ethernet0/1?
A. set igmp interface ethernet0/1
B. set multicast interface ethernet0/1
C. set interface ethernet0/1 igmp router
D. set igmp interface ethernet0/1 enable
Answer: C
10. Which command is used to verify that IGMP is running correctly?
A. get route igmp
B. get igmp query
C. set igmp query interface e0/1
D. exec igmp interface e0/1 query
Answer: D

2. During main mode negations a failure has occurred while using IKE certificates.
Which message pair would you review to troubleshoot this failure?
A. messages 1 & 2
B. messages 2 & 3
C. messages 3 & 4
D. messages 5 & 6
Answer: D

3. Review the exhibit.
Which two of the following elements must be configured on the ScreenOS device in order to support PIM-SM? (Choose two)
A. A multicast control policy
B. A bootstrap router process
C. A unicast routing protocol
D. A static RP
Answer: AC

4. Which ScreenOS CLI command is necessary for configuring IGMP on interface ethernet0/1?
A. set igmp interface ethernet0/1
B. set multicast interface ethernet0/1
C. set interface ethernet0/1 igmp router
D. set igmp interface ethernet0/1 enable
Answer: C

5. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which two can be determined about the VPN? (Choose two.)
A. NAT-traversal is enabled.
B. The rekey interval is 8 hours.
C. This device initiated the Phase 1 negotiations.
D. The certificate used in this exchange is set to never expire.
Answer: BC

6. You have created a virtual router called VSYSA-vr and made it shareable. You then create the VSYS using the WebUI, telling it to use an existing VR and selecting the VR called VSYSA-vr.
What is the status of the virtual router after you create the VSYS?
A. The router will be the default router but will no longer be shared.
B. The router will be the default router and will still have a shareable status.
C. The system will not let you use a shared virtual router when you create a new VSYS. The initial virtual router must be private.
D. The system will not create a private vr for the VSYS but will assign the untrust-vr as the default router. The shared Virtual router will not be the default router.
Answer: B

7. Click the Exhibit button.
Review the exhibit. Track-ip has failed on the device, but the device did not fail over to the second unit in the cluster:
Why has failover not occurred?
A. The physical interfaces have not failed.
B. The track-ip interval is not sufficient to cause failover.
C. The track-ip address weight is not sufficient to cause failover.
D. The track-ip address threshold is not sufficient to cause failover.
Answer: C

8. Which two item pairs are exchanged during Phase 2 negotiations? (Choose two.)
A. proxy-id, SA proposal list
B. IKE cookie, SA proposal list
C. hash [ID + Key], DH key exchange
D. SA proposal list, optional DH key exchange
Answer: AD

9. 250 dst-ip 10.1.10.5 ip-prot 6
What will be the resulting output in the debug for which this was created?
A. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 or a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 or has TCP as its protocol then it will be captured
B. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 or a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 or has UDP as its protocol then it will be captured
C. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 and a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 and has TCP as its protocol then it will be captured
D. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 and a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 and has UDP as its protocol then it will be captured
Answer: C
4. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which two can be determined about the VPN? (Choose two.)
A. NAT-traversal is enabled.
B. The rekey interval is 8 hours.
C. This device initiated the Phase 1 negotiations.
D. The certificate used in this exchange is set to never expire.
Answer: BC
5. You have created a virtual router called VSYSA-vr and made it shareable. You then create the VSYS using the WebUI, telling it to use an existing VR and selecting the VR called VSYSA-vr.
What is the status of the virtual router after you create the VSYS?
A. The router will be the default router but will no longer be shared.
B. The router will be the default router and will still have a shareable status.
C. The system will not let you use a shared virtual router when you create a new VSYS. The initial virtual router must be private.
D. The system will not create a private vr for the VSYS but will assign the untrust-vr as the default router. The shared Virtual router will not be the default router.
Answer: B
6. Click the Exhibit button.
Review the exhibit. Track-ip has failed on the device, but the device did not fail over to the second unit in the cluster:
Why has failover not occurred?
A. The physical interfaces have not failed.
B. The track-ip interval is not sufficient to cause failover.
C. The track-ip address weight is not sufficient to cause failover.
D. The track-ip address threshold is not sufficient to cause failover.
Answer: C
7. Which three OSPF parameters are interface parameters? (Choose three.)
A. cost
B. priority
C. neighbor list
D. summarization
E. advertise default route
Answer: ABC

10. Review the exhibit.
You’ve been asked to build a route-based hub and spoke network, with policy control for traffic travelling from spoke to spoke. Which two of the following configuration options will meet this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Place the spoke tunnel interfaces in the trust zone and create policies on the spokes.
B. Place the spoke tunnel interfaces in the untrust zone and create policies on the spokes.
C. Create a single tunnel interface in the trust zone at the hub and enable intra-zone blocking.
D. Create separate tunnel interfaces at the hub and place them in different zones, then create policies at the hub.
Answer: BD

11. You have entered the command
set ffilter src-ip 1.1.7.250 dst-ip 10.1.10.5 ip-prot 6
What will be the resulting output in the debug for which this was created?
A. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 or a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 or has TCP as its protocol then it will be captured
B. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 or a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 or has UDP as its protocol then it will be captured
C. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 and a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 and has TCP as its protocol then it will be captured
D. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 and a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 and has UDP as its protocol then it will be captured
Answer: C

12. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what is the source IP address of the multicast traffic?
A. 236.1.1.1
B. 10.10.10.1
C. 20.20.20.10
D. 20.20.20.200
Answer: B

13. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what is the address of the multicast receiver?
A. 234.9.8.42
B. 192.168.10.2
C. 192.168.20.10
D. 192.168.20.200
Answer: D

14. To which three ScreenOS components can a policy-based routing policy be bound? (Choose three.)
A. zone
B. policy
C. interface
D. virtual router
E. virtual system
Answer: ACD

15. Which CLI command identifies the multicast sources visible to your ScreenOS device?
A. get route pim
B. get igmp source all
C. exec pim interface all query
D. get vrouter trust-vr protocol pim
Answer: D

16. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the firewall administrator at the Storefront is complaining that when the communication to the DataCenter1 fails, the preexisting transfers and applications are dropped when the traffic is switched to DataCenter2.
Which statement explains this behavior?
A. SYN checking is enabled in the tunnel.
B. The weight value for the DataCenter2 is too high.
C. VPN monitor is misconfigured in the DataCenter2.
D. Phase 1 and Phase 2 negotiations to DataCenter2 did not occur on time.
Answer: A

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Exam : Juniper JN0-141
Title : AC Associate(JNCIA-AC)

1. What kind of security does the UAC solution provide?
A. endpoint security
B. perimeter security
C. network securityon a per-device basis
D. network security on a per-network basis
Answer: C

2. When is it necessary to use the Odyssey Access Client?
A. to perform overlay enforcement
B. to enable 802.1Xsupport on the endpoint
C. to communicate with the Infranet Controller
D. to buildan IPsec tunnel between endpoint and enforcer
Answer: D

3. Which statementis true about the operation of the overlay enforcer?
A. It assigns users a set of roles.
B. It enforces resource access policies.
C. It verifies whether an endpointmeets security requirements.
D. It configures the UAC agent to allow or deny access to resources.
Answer: B

4. What are the three main components of Juniper Networks Unified Access Control (UAC) solution? (Choose three.)
A. Infranet Controller
B. endpoint agent software
C. RADIUS accounting server
D. distributed policy enforcement points
E. intrusion detection and prevention device
Answer: ABD

5. What are three functions of the Infranet Controller? (Choose three.)
A. Verifiescompliance with policies.
B. Actsas a 802.1Xenforcer if needed.
C. Assignsroles and resources to users.
D. EnforcesLayer 3 policies dynamically.
E. Maintains communication with client during session.
Answer: ACE

6. You have created a Host Enforcer policy and want to verify that it has been applied.
In which two places would you look to determine if the policy is being enforced? (Choose two.)
A. client browser
B. overlay enforcer
C. Infranet Controller
D. Odyssey Access Client
Answer: CD

7. if Host Checker restrictions are applied at the role level and the Allow access to the role if any ONE of the select policies is passed option is selected, which statement is true?
A. Host Checker must be set to Require and enforce.
B. The role will not be removed if the Host Checker state changes.
C. The endpoint will be assigned the role as long as one policy passes.
D. The endpoint will be assigned the role as long as one rule in the policy passes.
Answer: C

8. Of the network access issues listed below, which two are addressed by the UAC solution? (Choose two.)
A. Prevent a host from being infected by a virus.
B. Allow contractors to gain access to some,but not all,network resources.
C. Prevent an authorized user from launching a denial of service attack on company resources.
D. Allow visitors to a branch office to gain Internet access without compromising network security policies.
Answer: BD

9. What is the function of the Host Checker?
A. Runson the Infranet Controller and ensuresreachability to agents.
B. Communicateswith the overlay enforcer and restrictsaccess to resources.
C. Communicateswith the Infranet Controller and checksendpoint security compliance.
D. Runson the endpoint and checksfor healthy communication with theoverlay enforcer and the Infranet Controller.
Answer: C

10. Which statement isaccurate about the integrated Odyssey Access Clientagent?
A. The agent is installed by the Layer 2 enforcer.
B. The agent is installed by the overlay enforcer.
C. The agent isinstalled by the Infranet Controller.
D. The agent communicates with the overlay enforcer in agentless mode.
Answer: C

11. Your company requires that users who authenticate using the Web run an approved Web browser and have current antivirus signatures to present their credentials for authentication. If they do not have current signatures or are running an unauthorized browser, they cannot authenticate.
What do you configure on the Infranet Controller to implement your company’s authentication policy?
A. abrowser restriction on the user’s role and a Host Checker restriction on the user’s role
B. abrowser restriction on the user’s realm and a Host Checker restriction on the user’s role
C. abrowser restriction on the user’s role and a Host Checker restriction on the user’s realm
D. abrowser restriction on the user’s realm and a Host Checker restriction on the user’s realm
Answer: D

12. Which deployment option is used to protect data center resources from unauthorized users and noncompliant endpoints?
A. WAN Gateway
B. Campus Wired
C. Server Front End
D. Distributed Enterprise
Answer: C

13. Which two options must be defined to enable the Infranet Controller to respond to RADIUS requests from an 802.1X-compliant network access device? (Choose two.)
A. a sign-in policy
B. a shared secret
C. the IP address of the network access device
D. the proper vendor-specific attributes for the network access device
Answer: BC

14. What are two ScreenOS commands you can run on the overlay enforcer to troubleshoot communication with the Infranet Controller? (Choose two.)
A. get event
B. get controller status
C. get auth table infranet
D. exec infranet controller connect
Answer: AD

15. Which log contains information about service restarts, system errors, warnings, and requests to check server connectivity?
A. Events log
B. System log
C. User Access log
D. Admin Access log
Answer: A

16. Which two deployment options are used to check a user’s compliance before allowing access to the local LAN? (Choose two.)
A. Campus Wired
B. Server Front End
C. Campus Wireless
D. Distributed Enterprise
Answer: AC

JN0-522 Free Demo Download

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Exam : Juniper JN0-522
Title : FWV,Associate(JNCIA-FWV)

1. Click the Exhibit button.
What does this icon indicate?
A. Logging is enabled on a policy.
B. Counters are enabled on a policy.
C. Scheduling is enabled on a policy.
D. Authentication is enabled on a policy.
Answer: B

2. Tunnel binding is accomplished during which part of the VPN configuration process?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Route Creation
D. Replay protection
E. Tunnel Interface Creation
Answer: B

3. The CLI command, ’set policy from untrust to trust "ANY" "ANY" "ANY" Permit’ is the default configuration policy on which NetScreen device?
A. NetScreen 500
B. NetScreen-5XT
C. NetScreen-5XP
D. None of the above
E. NetScreen-200 series
Answer: D

4. What are two benefits of configuring a ScreenOS device in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A. There is no need to reconfigure the IP addresses of routers or protected servers.
B. There is no need to create MIPs or VIPs for incoming traffic to reach protected servers.
C. Policies are easier to create since you do not have to include source and destination IP addresses.
D. The product can support more VPNs and obtain greater throughput because there is less overhead to manage.
Answer: AB

5. By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?
A. ROM
B. NVRAM
C. TFTP server
D. Internal Flash
E. PCMCIA Card
Answer: D

6. Which form of NAT performs bi-directional translation?
A. VIP
B. MIP
C. DIP
D. NAT-dst
E. NAT-src
Answer: B

7. Using the CLI, if the startup copy of the ScreenOS on a NS-204 is corrupted, from which two (2) alternate locations can an image be loaded?
A. ROM
B. TFTP server
C. Internal Flash
D. PCMCIA Card
E. Compact Flash Card
Answer: BE

8. What are the advantages of multiple virtual routers on a NetScreen device?
A. It creates more secure routing tables that are simpler to administer
B. It reduces packet-forwarding overhead associated with layer-3 operations
C. It increases the number of possible routing table entries per NetScreen device
D. It makes it possible to forward traffic between security zones without a policy lookup
Answer: A

9. Which statement best describes the ‘config rollback’ feature?
A. Once the ‘config rollback’ feature is enabled; it allows the administrator to re-apply a previously saved configuration file from Flash
B. The ‘config rollback’ feature is enabled by default; it allows the administrator to re-apply a previously saved configuration file from Flash
C. Once the ‘config rollback’ feature is enabled; it allows the administrator to re-apply a locked configuration file from a separate area in Flash
D. Once the ‘config rollback’ feature is enabled; it allows the administrator to revert to the prior ScreenOS image in the event an upgrade operation aborts
E. Once the ‘config rollback’ feature is enabled; it allows the administrator to revert to the prior ScreenOS image or configuration file in the event an upgrade operation aborts
Answer: C

10. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, on which interface would you configure a VIP for translating inbound traffic destined for the partner servers?
A. E1
B. E2
C. E7
D. E8
E. You cannot use a VIP in this environment; a VIP must be configured in the Untrust zone.
Answer: E

11. Which statement is correct regarding administrator privileges?
A. Any Administrator can change their privileges on an as-needed basis
B. Administrator privileges can only be established and changed by the Root Administrator
C. Administrator privileges can be established and changed by the Root and All-privilege Administrator
D. Administrator privileges can only be established by the Root and can be changed by the Root and All-privilege Administrator
Answer: B

12. Which statement about multi-cell policies is true?
A. You can apply the negate option to services.
B. You can apply the negate option to a source address.
C. You can only use the WebUI to configure multi-cell policies.
D. You can add up to 32 different addresses or services per cell.
Answer: B

13. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, you configure NAT-src to translate traffic from the Corporate zone to the Internet zone and do not specify a DIP.
Which address will be used as the outbound source address?
A. 143.45.56.1
B. 143.45.56.254
C. NAT-src requires a DIP
D. the original source address
Answer: A

14. Which command is used to avoid IP fragmentation when configuring IPSec on a ScreenOS device?
A. set flow
B. set tcp-mss flow
C. set flow tcp-mss
D. set mss-flow size
Answer: C

15. Which two statements are accurate about tunnel mode? (Choose two.)
A. In tunnel mode the IPSec header precedes the original IP header.
B. Tunnel mode is required in IPSec networks where ESP packets are used.
C. Tunnel mode is the default mode of operation for IPSec in ScreenOS devices.
D. Tunnel mode can only be used when operating between IPSec security gateways.
Answer: AC

16. What is the default mode for an interface in the trust zone?
A. NAT
B. route
C. Layer 2
D. Layer 3
E. transparent
Answer: A

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Exam : Juniper JN0-400
Title : EX, Associate (JNCIA-EX)

1. Within a virtual chassis, which type of switch maintains the forwarding table?
A.line card
B.master switch
C.routing switch
D.forwarding switch
Answer: B

2. Which two statements regarding packet flow through an EX-series switch are correct? (Choose two.)
A.Transit packets are processed by the Routing Engine.
B.The destination MAC address determines which lookup table is used.
C.If the egress port belongs to the ingress Packet Forwarding Engine, the packet is switched locally.
D.If the egress port belongs to a remote Packet Forwarding Engine, the Routing Engine is consulted prior to forwarding the packet.
Answer: BC

3. 1.1.2/24 {
vrrp-group 100 {
virtual-address 10.1.1.1;
priority 110;
}
}
}
}
}
}
Switch-2:
interfaces {
vlan {
unit 100 {
family inet {
address 10.1.1.3/24 {
vrrp-group 200 {
virtual-address 10.1.1.1;
priority 90;
}
}
}
}
}
A.The IP addresses do not match.
B.The group numbers do not match.
C.The priority numbers do not match.
D.VRRP is not supported between a physical interface and a VLAN interface.
Answer: B

4. Click the Exhibit button.
Why will the configurations in the exhibit fail to provide gateway redundancy between Switch-1 and Switch-2?
3 Switch-1:
interfaces {
ge-0/0/3 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 10.1.1.2/24 {
vrrp-group 100 {
virtual-address 10.1.1.1;
priority 110;
}
}
}
}
}
}
Switch-2:
interfaces {
vlan {
unit 100 {
family inet {
address 10.1.1.3/24 {
vrrp-group 200 {
virtual-address 10.1.1.1;
priority 90;
}
}
}
}
}
A.The IP addresses do not match.
B.The group numbers do not match.
C.The priority numbers do not match.
D.VRRP is not supported between a physical interface and a VLAN interface.
Answer: B

5. You are configuring the voice VLAN feature on an EX-series switch on interface ge-0/0/5.
Which configuration would you use?
A.ethernet-switching-options { voice-vlan { interface ge-0/0/5.0 { vlan voice-over-ip; forwarding-class expedited-forwarding; } }}
B.ethernet-switching-options { voip { interface ge-0/0/5.0 { member-vlan voice-over-ip; forwarding-class expedited-forwarding; } }}
C.ethernet-switching-options { voip { interface ge-0/0/5.0 { vlan voice-over-ip; forwarding-class expedited-forwarding; } }}
D.ethernet-switching-options { voice-vlan { interface ge-0/0/5.0 { member-vlan voice-over-ip; forwarding-class expedited-forwarding; } }}
Answer: C

6. You want to configure Layer 3 routing between two VLANs on a single EX-series switch.
In which configuration hierarchy would you configure the IP addresses for each VLAN?
A.[edit vlans]
B.[edit family inet]
C.[edit interfaces vlan]
D.[edit routing-options]
Answer: C

7. An EX-series switch has two routes for the same prefix: one that it received through OSPF and one that is a static route.
How will the switch choose a route to use for this prefix?
A.The switch will compare metrics and use the route with the lowest metric.
B.The switch will compare metrics and use the route with the highest metric.
C.The switch will compare route preferences and use the route with the highest route preference.
D.The switch will compare route preferences and use the route with the lowest route preference.
Answer: D

8. What are two features of JUNOS software? (Choose two.)
A.JUNOS facilitates separate control and forwarding planes.
B.All processes use shared memory to make efficient use of available resources.
C.The functionality of JUNOS is made possible through multiple processes that are dependant on each other.
D.All processes run in their own protected memory space to prevent against complete system failure when a single process fails.
Answer: AD

9.
Which configuration would you use?
A.ethernet-switching-options { voice-vlan { interface ge-0/0/5.0 { vlan voice-over-ip; forwarding-class expedited-forwarding; } }}
B.ethernet-switching-options { voip { interface ge-0/0/5.0 { member-vlan voice-over-ip; forwarding-class expedited-forwarding; } }}
C.ethernet-switching-options { voip { interface ge-0/0/5.0 { vlan voice-over-ip; forwarding-class expedited-forwarding; } }}
D.ethernet-switching-options { voice-vlan { interface ge-0/0/5.0 { member-vlan voice-over-ip; forwarding-class expedited-forwarding; } }}
Answer: C
3. Which two are included in the EZsetup configuration for EX-series switches? (Choose two.)
A.Configure syslog servers.
B.Configure routing protocols.
C.Configure root authentication.
D.Configure me0 management Ethernet port.
Answer: CD
4. Within a virtual chassis, which type of switch maintains the forwarding table?
A.line card
B.master switch
C.routing switch
D.forwarding switch
Answer: B
5. On an EX-series switch, what information is gathered when building a bridge table? (Choose two.)
A.interface
B.IP address
C.MAC address
D.authentication information
Answer: AC

10. Which two major components make up the control and forwarding planes for an EX-series switch? (Choose two.)
A.Routing Engine
B.Switching Engine
C.Switching Fabric Module
D.Packet Forwarding Engine
Answer: AD

11. What are two components of the JUNOS software architecture? (Choose two.)
A.multiple software processes
B.separation of control and forwarding planes
C.shared memory environment for all processes
D.efficient processing of all packets through the control plane
Answer: AB

12. Which two are included in the EZsetup configuration for EX-series switches? (Choose two.)
A.Configure syslog servers.
B.Configure routing protocols.
C.Configure root authentication.
D.Configure me0 management Ethernet port.
Answer: CD

13. Click the Exhibit button.
Given the configuration in the exhibit, which command would configure the IP address 10.10.10.1/24 for VLAN 2?
3 interfaces {
ge-0/0/0 {
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
vlan {
members v2;
}
}
}
}
ge-0/0/1 {
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching;
}
}
}
vlans {
v2 {
vlan-id 2;
interface {
ge-0/0/1.0;
}
l3-interface vlan.2;
}
}
A.set vlans v2 family inet address 10.10.10.1/24
B.set interfaces vlan v2 family inet address 10.10.10.1/24
C.set interfaces vlan unit 2 family inet address 10.10.10.1/24
D.set interfaces ge-0/0/1 unit 0 family inet address 10.10.10.1/24
Answer: C

14. Which two statements describe the EX 3200 switches? (Choose two.)
A.The single-blower fan tray used for the EX 3200 switches is field replaceable.
B.The EX 3200 switches can be interconnected to form a single virtual chassis.
C.The redundant AC power supply units on the EX 3200 switches are hot swappable and load sharing.
D.The EX 3200 switches support either 4-port 1-Gigabit Ethernet or 2-port 10-Gigabit Ethernet uplink modules.
Answer: AD

15. Which three functions are performed in the control plane? (Choose three.)
A.protocol updates
B.packet forwarding
C.system management
D.service implementation
E.forwarding table maintenance
Answer: ACE

16. Which two statements describe the EX 4200 switches? (Choose two.)
A.The fan tray used for the EX 4200 switches is not field replaceable.
B.The EX 4200 switches can be interconnected to form a single virtual chassis.
C.The EX 4200 switches support redundant load-sharing AC power supplies.
D.All EX 4200 switches support either partial or full Power over Ethernet (PoE) support.
Answer: BC