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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-303
Title : Wireless LAN Analysis and Troubleshooting

1. IP addresses consist of two parts. These parts are:
A. The local portion and the host portion
B. The local portion and the remote portion
C. The network portion and the host portion
D. The network portion and the remote portion
Answer: C

2. The mask /26 will allow _______ hosts on a subnet.
A. 30
B. 32
C. 62
D. 64
Answer: C

3. The relationship of ports, addresses and sockets is best represented by which of the following statements?
A. A socket is an alternative name for a port
B. A socket is a combination of port and IP address
C. A port is an application and IP address
D. A socket is a pair of IP addresses
Answer: B

4. The address mask 255.255.224.0 equates to _______ in binary.
A. 11111111. 11111111. 11100000. 00000000
B. 00000000. 00000000. 00000000. 00000111
C. 11111111. 11111111. 11111111. 11100000
D. 00000000. 00000111. 11111111. 11111111
Answer: A

5. Which of the following is an address reserved by the InterNIC?
A. 126.0.0.1
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 128.0.0.1
D. All of the above
Answer: B

6. The addresses described by 200.1.32.0 /23 is:
A. A CIDR block
B. A Class C subnet
C. A Class B subnet
D. An aggregator
Answer: A

7. This protocol is connection-oriented and provides reliable end-to-end communication.
A. UDP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. ICMP
Answer: C

8. A message is associated with which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Application
B. Transport
C. Network
D. Data Link
Answer: A

9. The acronym RFC stands for _______.
A. Requested File Control
B. Requesting Further Clarification
C. Revised for Comments
D. Request for Comments
Answer: D

10. The Sniffer posts a Local Router condition when:
A. A host receives frames from a local router instead of a remote router
B. No routing is available on a subnet
C. A host sends its frames to a host instead of a router on a subnet
D. A host sends its frames to the router’s DLC instead of the DLC of a host on the same subnet
Answer: D

11. 27.42.100, with a mask of 255.255.0.0?
A. 10
B. 27
C. 27.42
D. 100
Answer: A
8. Dynamic NAT is typically used for which type of host access?
A. Outside to inside
B. Inside to outside
C. Inside to firewall
D. Firewall to firewall
Answer: B

12. What is the Network part of a host that has an address of 10.27.42.100, with a mask of 255.255.0.0?
A. 10
B. 27
C. 27.42
D. 100
Answer: A

13. A logical AND operation of the address 1.2.3.4 with the mask 255.255.255.0 would result in the value:
A. 1.0.0.0
B. 1.2.3.255
C. 1.2.3.0
D. 255.255.255.4
Answer: C

14. The definition of a supernet is:
A. A block of contiguous network addresses that creates a smaller address space for use on multiple network segments
B. A block of separate network addresses that creates a larger address space for use on multiple network segments
C. A block of separate network addresses that creates a smaller address space for use on multiple network segments
D. A block of contiguous network addresses that creates a larger address space for use on multiple network segments
Answer: D

15. IP addresses consist of unique ______-bit address space.
A. 16
B. 32
C. 1514
D. 2048
Answer: B

16. Dynamic NAT is typically used for which type of host access?
A. Outside to inside
B. Inside to outside
C. Inside to firewall
D. Firewall to firewall
Answer: B

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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-530
Title : TCP/IP Network Analysis and Troubleshooting

1. Dynamic NAT is typically used for which type of host access?
A. Outside to inside
B. Inside to outside
C. Inside to firewall
D. Firewall to firewall
Answer: B

2. The relationship of ports, addresses and sockets is best represented by which of the following statements?
A. A socket is an alternative name for a port
B. A socket is a combination of port and IP address
C. A port is an application and IP address
D. A socket is a pair of IP addresses
Answer: B

3. A logical AND operation of the address 1.2.3.4 with the mask 255.255.255.0 would result in the value:
A. 1.0.0.0
B. 1.2.3.255
C. 1.2.3.0
D. 255.255.255.4
Answer: C

4. A message is associated with which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Application
B. Transport
C. Network
D. Data Link
Answer: A

5. IP addresses consist of two parts. These parts are:
A. The local portion and the host portion
B. The local portion and the remote portion
C. The network portion and the host portion
D. The network portion and the remote portion
Answer: C

6. IP addresses consist of unique ______-bit address space.
A. 16
B. 32
C. 1514
D. 2048
Answer: B

7. The Sniffer posts a Local Router condition when:
A. A host receives frames from a local router instead of a remote router
B. No routing is available on a subnet
C. A host sends its frames to a host instead of a router on a subnet
D. A host sends its frames to the router’s DLC instead of the DLC of a host on the same subnet
Answer: D

8. The definition of a supernet is:
A. A block of contiguous network addresses that creates a smaller address space for use on multiple network segments
B. A block of separate network addresses that creates a larger address space for use on multiple network segments
C. A block of separate network addresses that creates a smaller address space for use on multiple network segments
D. A block of contiguous network addresses that creates a larger address space for use on multiple network segments
Answer: D

9. What is the Network part of a host that has an address of 10.27.42.100, with a mask of 255.255.0.0?
A. 10
B. 27
C. 27.42
D. 100
Answer: A

10. The mask /26 will allow _______ hosts on a subnet.
A. 30
B. 32
C. 62
D. 64
Answer: C

11. Which of the following is an address reserved by the InterNIC?
A. 126.0.0.1
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 128.0.0.1
D. All of the above
Answer: B

12. 27.42.100, with a mask of 255.255.0.0?
A. 10
B. 27
C. 27.42
D. 100
Answer: A
8. Dynamic NAT is typically used for which type of host access?
A. Outside to inside
B. Inside to outside
C. Inside to firewall
D. Firewall to firewall
Answer: B

13. The address mask 255.255.224.0 equates to _______ in binary.
A. 11111111. 11111111. 11100000. 00000000
B. 00000000. 00000000. 00000000. 00000111
C. 11111111. 11111111. 11111111. 11100000
D. 00000000. 00000111. 11111111. 11111111
Answer: A

14. The acronym RFC stands for _______.
A. Requested File Control
B. Requesting Further Clarification
C. Revised for Comments
D. Request for Comments
Answer: D

15. The addresses described by 200.1.32.0 /23 is:
A. A CIDR block
B. A Class C subnet
C. A Class B subnet
D. An aggregator
Answer: A

16. This protocol is connection-oriented and provides reliable end-to-end communication.
A. UDP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. ICMP
Answer: C

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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-511
Title : Network Analysis & Troubleshooting

1. This is the network map.
If a Sniffer Network Analyzer captured a frame at point A going from User to a server somewhere on the Internet, that frame would contain: (Choose all that apply.)
A. An IP destination address of 24.1.1.1
B. An IP destination address of the server
C. A DLC destination address of Cisco 36CD65
D. A DLC source address of Cisco 36CD65
E. An IP source address of 192.168.1.101
Answer: BDE

2. OSI layer 4 is concerned with __________.
A. ACKs and flow control working correctly
B. Routing or frame delivery
C. Connections working correctly
D. Physical problems
Answer: A

3. This is the Decode Hex window for this question.
If you were going to create a Data Pattern filter on LOGIN it would be helpful to know that the letter is at offset __________.
A. 38
B. 39
C. 3A
D. 3B
Answer: B

4. Which of the following best describes the function of the Transport layer of the OSI Reference Model?
A. Packet framing
B. Reports upper-layer errors
C. Connection management
D. Manages user sessions
Answer: C

5. 0.1 initiated a ping
B. 192.168.0.26 initiated a ping
C. 192.168.0.26 has a MAC address of 001111195130
D. 192.168.0.1 should not repeat the ICMP: Echo
Answer: A
3. This is the Detail window for this question.
Which of the following statements is true for this Decode Detail window?
A. One of the UDP ports should be ephemeral
B. UDP is the Station layer protocol
C. NETB is the Connection layer protocol
D. UDP is the Transport layer protocol
Answer: D
4. When troubleshooting a slow application, which of the following could be indicators of an application-specific problem?
A. Commands with timely responses
B. Large or full-size frames
C. Long Delta times before each client request
D. None of the above
Answer: D
5. This is the Decode Hex window for this question.
If you were going to create a Data Pattern filter on LOGIN it would be helpful to know that the letter is at offset __________.
A. 38
B. 39
C. 3A
D. 3B
Answer: B

6. The interframe spacing in Fast Ethernet is __________.
A. 9.6 milliseconds
B. 96.0 nanoseconds
C. .96 microseconds
D. .96 milliseconds
Answer: C

7. To save a trace file as a compressed file from the Sniffer you must use the extension:
A. CAP
B. zip
C. enc
D. caz
Answer: D

8. When troubleshooting a slow application, which of the following could be indicators of an application-specific problem?
A. Commands with timely responses
B. Large or full-size frames
C. Long Delta times before each client request
D. None of the above
Answer: D

9. This is the Detail window for this question.
Which of the following statements is true for this Decode Detail window?
A. One of the UDP ports should be ephemeral
B. UDP is the Station layer protocol
C. NETB is the Connection layer protocol
D. UDP is the Transport layer protocol
Answer: D

10. This is a screen from the Decode Summary window.
Which of the following statements is true for this capture?
A. 192.168.0.1 initiated a ping
B. 192.168.0.26 initiated a ping
C. 192.168.0.26 has a MAC address of 001111195130
D. 192.168.0.1 should not repeat the ICMP: Echo
Answer: A

11. Which of the following protocols are summarized when the Expert Overview pane and Station layer are selected?
A. ARP, Ethernet, Cisco CDP
B. ICMP. IP, IPX
C. TCP, UDP
D. NetBIOS, SMB
Answer: B

12. The OSI Transport layer corresponds to the Expert __________ layer.
A. Data Link
B. Connection
C. Session
D. Network
Answer: B

13. Which of the following is recommended as part of the troubleshooting methodology?
A. Use the Expert and Summary window first
B. Use the Detail window first
C. Use a top-down approach
D. Use the Hex window first
Answer: A

14. A sound troubleshooting methodology includes as part of the process a focus on finding imbalances or errors.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

15. Which of the following resources in the Sniffer is useful in identifying the endpoints in conversations in a captured trace?
A. Expert DLC Layer Summary
B. Pattern Match filter
C. Matrix
D. All of the above
Answer: C

16. This is a screen from the Expert Objects detail.
Which of the following statements are true for this Object detail screen? (Choose all that apply.)
A. This is the detail for a Duplicate IP Address alarm
B. This is the detail for a Local Routing alarm
C. KinetxA14015 is a robable Prouter
D. This is the detail for a Window Exceeded alarm
E. This is a connectionless Conversation
Answer: BE

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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-520
Title : Application Performance Analysis and Troubleshooting

1. This image shows one of the Sniffer Monitor applications.
The Sniffer application shown in the graphic can be very useful in analyzing __________.
A. Response timeA.Response timeA.Response time
B. Application efficiencyB.Application efficiencyB.Application efficiency
C. Name resolutionC.Name resolutionC.Name resolution
D. Traffic flow D.Traffic flow D.Traffic flow
Answer: D

2. The __________ type of application usually does not have any request/reply interactions after the initial session is established.
A. Interactive
B. Throughput-oriented
C. Transaction-oriented
D. Streaming
Answer: D

3. We can calculate __________ for a file transfer by dividing file size by link speed.
A. Bandwidth latency
B. Application efficiency
C. Congestion delay
D. Throughput
Answer: A

4. When conducting a predictive analysis, one of the input parameters to the model is the user task time in seconds. If you do not know this value you can estimate how long the task took (round up to whole seconds) to get a fairly accurate prediction for the task.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

5. The image below is a view of the Sniffer Expert Connection layer statistics.
From the statistics shown we can determine that __________.
A. The client was very busy
B. The server was very busy
C. Very little delay occurred in the transmission of the data
D. Retransmissions had a serious effect on the transmission of the data
Answer: B

6. Round-trip distance latency between Phoenix and Singapore (9,081 miles or 14,529 km) is __________.
A. About 165 milliseconds
B. About 270 milliseconds
C. About 500 milliseconds
D. About 1 second
Answer: A

7. If the predictive analysis results in response time that is slightly more than what users are experiencing, what action should we take?
A. Review the parameters used in the predictive analysis, this should not happen
B. Analyze the network, it can not be the application
C. Analyze the network then the application, it may be either one
D. Nothing, this is normal
Answer: D

8. 0.002.750.000, as a measure of time, can also be represented as __________.
A. 27 ?milliseconds
B. 2.75 microseconds
C. 2.75 milliseconds
D. 2.75 nanoseconds
Answer: C

9. The Predictive Analysis Model requires __________ to be documented as part of the application profile.
A. Task duration and application turns
B. Application turns and Relative time
C. Cumulative bytes and number of tasks
D. File size and total time
Answer: A

10. When capturing data for the application profile, it is best to capture __________, when possible.
A. Just the traffic for this application
B. Only the traffic going to or from the server
C. Only the traffic going to or from the client
D. All of the traffic on the network segment
Answer: D

11. To accurately calculate bandwidth latency we must know __________. (Choose all that apply)
A. The fastest link speed in the path between client and server
B. The slowest link speed in the path between client and server
C. The link speed between the client and the firewall
D. The distance between the client and the server (based on .66 the speed of light)
E. All of the above
Answer: B

12. Distance latency can be improved by __________.
A. Relocating client computers to the same switch as the server
B. Relocating the server to the client location
C. Increasing the bandwidth on the slowest link
D. Reducing the amount of data transmitted across the network
E. Upgrading the interconnecting devices (routers and switches) between the client and the server
Answer: AB

13. Predictive analysis describes the worst case performance of an application based on the design and configuration of the network.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

14. Output from the predictive analysis model should match data in the __________.
A. Sniffer Statistics tab
B. Application Profile
C. Ping command
D. All of the above
Answer: B

15. When optimizing application efficiency, an improvement in efficiency from the current 90% to an efficiency of 95% or more should result in __________:
A. Significantly increased response time
B. Significantly decreased response time
C. Significantly increased network utilization
D. None of the above
Answer: D

16. If we do not know the speed of all of the links between the client and the server, we can __________ to calculate bandwidth delay.
A. Use our network diagram
B. Estimate based on the 3-way handshake
C. Use the speed of the link nearest the server
D. Use the Line Speed displayed in the Sniffer
Answer: A

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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-521
Title : Application Performance Analysis and Troubleshooting

1. What does a Window value of 8760 in a TCP header mean?
A. The sender is confirming the 8760 bytes have been sent
B. The sender has 8760 bytes in its buffer
C. The sender has received a total of 8760 bytes
D. The sender has buffer space for 8760 more bytes
Answer: D

2. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Real-time Transport Protocol?
A. Used by several protocols to provide end-to-end transmission of real-time data
B. Uses a proxy agent for client-server communications
C. Operates as a client-server protocol
D. Keep-alive messages provide status information
Answer: A

3. To accurately calculate __________ we must know the slowest link speed in the path between client and server
A. Distance latency
B. Congestion delay
C. Bandwidth latency
D. Round-trip time
Answer: C

4. When capturing data in a multi-tier environment, attach the Sniffer to the application server using __________. (Choose all that apply)
A. A full duplex interface
B. A tap on the server connection
C. A mirror on the server switch port
D. A mirror on the database switch port
E. Two Sniffer network analyzers
Answer: BC

5. __________ is a protocol used to perform Control and Signaling functions in a VoIP conversation.
A. Session Initiation Protocol
B. Real-Time Streaming Protocol
C. Cisco Skinny Client Control Protocol
D. All of the above
Answer: D

6. The TCP 4-way handshake is used to __________.
A. Indicate the start of a flow of data
B. Identify the client request parameters
C. End a connection
D. Establish a connection
Answer: C

7. When using Application Intelligence, Server Time may be defined as __________.
A. The total time required to send a request and receive a response
B. The total time packets are on the network for a particular flow
C. The total time it takes for a packet to travel from client to server based on TCP handshakes
D. The net time for the server to respond to a client request
Answer: D

8. The image below is a view of the Sniffer Summary window.
How many application turns are shown?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. Can not be determined based on the information shown
Answer: A

9. An application that is sensitive to Jitter is primarily sensitive to __________.
A. Network congestion
B. Bandwidth latency
C. Distance latency
D. Application turns
Answer: A

10. The well-known port used by FTP servers to establish a Data connection is:
A. 10
B. 20
C. 21
D. Variable
Answer: C

11. _______ is the amount of time, based on the engineering of the network, to complete a task.
A. Throughput
B. Delay
C. Access time
D. Latency
Answer: B

12. One component in an application turn is __________.
A. Server response time
B. Network process time
C. Application response time
D. Client acknowledgement time
Answer: A

13. When reviewing trace data in a multi-tier application, application server requests can be associated with database responses using __________.
A. TCP port numbers
B. Request ID
C. Raw data in the database response
D. Formatted data in the application response
Answer: A

14. When using Application Intelligence, End-to-End Response Time may be defined as __________.
A. The total time required to send a request and receive a response
B. The total time packets are on the network for a particular flow
C. The total time it takes for a packet to travel from client to server based on TCP handshakes
D. The net time for the server to respond to a client request
Answer: A

15. A large Window size used by a client could cause __________.
A. The server to consume more resources
B. Increased number of ACKs to be sent
C. Increased delay when frames are lost
D. None of the above
Answer: D

16. When creating a filter in the Sniffer to select only the traffic to or from the client for a particular conversation, the best approach is to focus on a __________.
A. TCP well known port number
B. TCP unknown port number
C. TCP ephemeral port number
D. TCP port number in the range 512-1024
Answer: C

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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-510
Title : Troubleshooting with Sniffer Portable/Sniffer Distributed

1. What OSI layer handles data encryption?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Presentation
D. Service
Answer: C

2. The frame type that contains a DLC Ethertype field is:
A. Novell aw?frame
B. Ethernet version Two
C. 802.3 frame
D. 802.3 with SNAP
Answer: B

3. The interframe spacing in Fast Ethernet is __________.
A. 9.6 milliseconds
B. 96.0 nanoseconds
C. .96 microseconds
D. .96 milliseconds
Answer: C

4. A Novell aw?frame contains an 802.3 length field followed by a(n) __________.
A. SNAP header
B. IPX header
C. IP header
D. LLC header
Answer: B

5. 3 length field followed by a(n) __________.
A. SNAP header
B. IPX header
C. IP header
D. LLC header
Answer: B
2. The most common VLAN grouping technique is __________.
A. Protocol
B. Segment
C. Multicast
D. Port
Answer: D

6. An 802.3 frame contains an 802.3 length field followed by a(n) __________.
A. DLC Ethertype field
B. IP header
C. IPX header
D. LLC header
Answer: D

7. A Jabber is a physical error frame that has:
A. A length that is not a multiple of 8 bits, and therefore cannot be unambiguously resolved into bytes
B. Random or garbage data added to the content of the frame, typically caused by a hardware fault
C. A legal frame size, but an invalid CRC
D. None of the above
Answer: B

8. In the Sniffer Expert analyzer, the Service Objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Session
D. Transport
Answer: A

9. Which of the following best describes the function of the Transport layer of the OSI Reference Model?
A. Packet framing
B. Reports upper-layer errors
C. Connection management
D. Manages user sessions
Answer: C

10. Which of the following is a valid filename to use when saving a trace file in the Sniffer with compression applied?
A. Compressed.cap
B. FTP.zip
C. Trace1.enc
D. TCP-error.caz
Answer: D

11. The most common type of physical error seen in networks today is:
A. Electrical interference
B. Frame collisions
C. Hardware malfunction
D. Duplex mismatch
Answer: A

12. Delta time, such as 0.046.357, is read as:
A. hours.minutes.seconds
B. seconds.milliseconds.microseconds
C. milliseconds.microseconds.nanoseconds
D. microseconds.milliseconds.nanoseconds
Answer: B

13. The maximum legal size Ethernet frame (excluding exceptions) as captured by the Sniffer and displayed in a 10/100 Ethernet trace file is:
A. 1518
B. 1512
C. 1532
D. 1514
Answer: D

14. When physical errors occur they are often interpreted as data in the Sniffer. Key values to look for that may indicate a physical problem are:
A. AAAA
B. 5555
C. FFFF
D. All of the above
Answer: D

15. In the Sniffer Expert analyzer, the Connection Objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Session
B. Transport
C. Network
D. Data Link
Answer: B

16. In the Sniffer Expert analyzer, the Station Objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Network
Answer: D

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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-222
Title : Wireless LAN Analysis and Troubleshooting

1. Which Monitor application shows the minimum, maximum and current signal strength of each device?
A. Matrix > MAC Detail
B. Global Statistics > Channel Surfing tab
C. Host Table > 802.11 tab
D. Multiple History Samples
Answer: C

2. What data transfer rates does IEEE 802.11a support?
A. 1 and 2 Mbps
B. 1, 2.5, 5 and 11 Mbps
C. 6 to 54 Mbps
D. 1, 2, 5 and 11.5 Mbps
Answer: C

3. ETSI BRAN is directly responsible for which wireless technology?
A. Bluetooth
B. HiperLAN2
C. HomeRF SWAP
D. WECA
Answer: B

4. Which statement is correct about Sniffer Portables ability to work with WEP encrypted frames?
A. Sniffer Portable cannot decode WEP encrypted data frames
B. Sniffer Portable can decode entire encrypted frames if you have entered the correct WEP keys
C. Sniffer Portable can decode only the DLC and network layer of encrypted frames if you have entered the correct WEP keys
D. Sniffer Portable supports only 40-bit WEP encryption
Answer: B

5. Which Monitor display shows various counts and the BSSID on each channel?
A. Global Statistics > Channel Surfing tab
B. Matrix > Channel Surfing tab
C. Dashboard > Channel Surfing tab
D. Protocol Distribution > Channel surfing tab
Answer: A

6. IEEE 802.11b supports the following data packet rates:
A. 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps
B. 1, 2, 5, and 11 Mbps
C. 1, 2.5, 5 and 11 Mbps
D. 1, 2, 5 and 11.5 Mbps
Answer: A

7. Access Points do NOT do the following:
A. Forward frames between wireless and/or wire-attached stations
B. Buffer frames for stations out of range or in power save mode
C. Route frames between different subnets
D. Forward frames between wireless devices on the same subnet
Answer: C

8. What is the minimum RAM recommended for a Sniffer Portable with a wireless interface?
A. 32 MB
B. 64 MB
C. 128 MB
D. 256 MB
Answer: C

9. 5 Mbps
Answer: A
3. Access Points do NOT do the following:
A. Forward frames between wireless and/or wire-attached stations
B. Buffer frames for stations out of range or in power save mode
C. Route frames between different subnets
D. Forward frames between wireless devices on the same subnet
Answer: C
4. An Extended Service Set configuration includes which of the following devices?
A. Mobile units and multiple Access Points connected to wired LANs
B. Mobile units with no Access Points
C. Mobile devices and a single Access Point connected to a wired LAN
D. Multi-homed mobile devices
Answer: A
5. Which three of the following devices support 802.11b WLAN software and hardware? (Select three that apply)
A. Desktop PC
B. Laptop PC
C. Analog cellular telephone
D. Personal Digital Assistant
Answer: ABD
6. What data transfer rates does IEEE 802.11a support?
A. 1 and 2 Mbps
B. 1, 2.5, 5 and 11 Mbps
C. 6 to 54 Mbps
D. 1, 2, 5 and 11.5 Mbps
Answer: C
7. Which Expert layer does NOT show wireless objects ?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Connection
D. Global
Answer: D
8. Which Monitor display shows the channel each device is using?
A. Host Table > MAC tab
B. Global Statistics > Channel Surfing tab
C. Host Table > 802.11 tab
D. Global Statistics > Utilization Dist. tab
Answer: C
9. Which Monitor display shows various counts and the BSSID on each channel?
A. Global Statistics > Channel Surfing tab
B. Matrix > Channel Surfing tab
C. Dashboard > Channel Surfing tab
D. Protocol Distribution > Channel surfing tab
Answer: A
10. Which Monitor application shows the minimum, maximum and current signal strength of each device?
A. Matrix > MAC Detail
B. Global Statistics > Channel Surfing tab
C. Host Table > 802.11 tab
D. Multiple History Samples
Answer: C
11. True or false? You must use both a wireless and Ethernet card to monitor and sniff a wireless network.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

10. You can set wireless triggers using which three criteria? (Select three that apply)
A. Enable Alarms, then choose various wireless frame types
B. Choose a previously defined capture filter
C. Enable Alarms, then choose the channel you wish to observe
D. Enable channel surfing, then use a station address filter
Answer: ABD

11. Sniffer Wireless shows full seven-layer decodes for all frames if you:
A. Enter the correct WEP key before you open a trace file
B. Entered the correct WEP key before the frames were captured
C. Use Display > Display Setup > Summary Display > Decrypt all frames
D. Use Display > Display Setup > Summary Display and enable 802.11 protocols
Answer: B

12. Which path is used to enable Sniffer Portable to capture on specific BSSID and ESSIDs?
A. Capture > Options > 802.11 tab
B. Capture > Define filter > 802.11 tab
C. Tools > Options > 802.11 tab
D. Capture > Tools > 802.11 tab
Answer: C

13. Which Monitor display shows the channel each device is using?
A. Host Table > MAC tab
B. Global Statistics > Channel Surfing tab
C. Host Table > 802.11 tab
D. Global Statistics > Utilization Dist. tab
Answer: C

14. 5, and 11 Mbps
B. 1, 2, 5, and 11 Mbps
C. 1, 2.5, 5 and 11 Mbps
D. 1, 2, 5 and 11.5 Mbps
Answer: A
3. Access Points do NOT do the following:
A. Forward frames between wireless and/or wire-attached stations
B. Buffer frames for stations out of range or in power save mode
C. Route frames between different subnets
D. Forward frames between wireless devices on the same subnet
Answer: C
4. An Extended Service Set configuration includes which of the following devices?
A. Mobile units and multiple Access Points connected to wired LANs
B. Mobile units with no Access Points
C. Mobile devices and a single Access Point connected to a wired LAN
D. Multi-homed mobile devices
Answer: A
5. Which three of the following devices support 802.11b WLAN software and hardware? (Select three that apply)
A. Desktop PC
B. Laptop PC
C. Analog cellular telephone
D. Personal Digital Assistant
Answer: ABD

15. An Extended Service Set configuration includes which of the following devices?
A. Mobile units and multiple Access Points connected to wired LANs
B. Mobile units with no Access Points
C. Mobile devices and a single Access Point connected to a wired LAN
D. Multi-homed mobile devices
Answer: A

16. Which Expert layer does NOT show wireless objects ?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Connection
D. Global
Answer: D

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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-323
Title : Microsoft Windows 2000 Network Analysis and Troubleshooting

1. DHCP packet format is compatible with _______.
A. SMB
B. PPP
C. SLIP
D. BOOTP
Answer: D

2. Which term describes a database of forest-wide information in Windows 2000?
A. Global Catalog
B. Tree
C. Realm
D. Domain
Answer: A

3. True or False? In Windows 2000, BDCs are read-only controllers, just as with NT.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

4. Which DHCP server message is sent to a client refusing a request for configuration?
A. Discover
B. Offer
C. NAK
D. Decline
Answer: C

5. The LDAP protocol is used by a domain DHCP server to determine if it is ________.
A. In a domain or workgroup
B. Operating within its scope
C. Using APIPA or RFC 1918 addresses
D. Authorized to issue IP addresses
Answer: D

6. When a DHCP server comes on-line in a domain, it will query _______ to discover if it is authorized to provide DHCP services.
A. Another DHCP server
B. Active Directory
C. Local routers
D. APIPA clients
Answer: B

7. DHCP Relay is used when:
A. DHCP clients are separated by a router
B. DHCP servers are separated by a router
C. DHCP clients and servers are separated by a router
D. DHCP server is also the DNS server
Answer: C

8. Kerberos is a protocol used to:
A. Replace NetBIOS
B. Access directory services
C. Authenticate
D. Register and resolve host names
Answer: C

9. The image below is a view of the Sniffer Portable Summary window.
If a Windows NT DHCP server sees this exchange from an authorized domain Windows 2000 DHCP server, it will:
A. Cease issuing IP addresses
B. Begin issuing IP addresses
C. Self-authorize
D. Have no effect
Answer: D

10. In _______, the concept of a read-only BDC is gone.
A. Legacy NT 4 domains
B. Active Services
C. SMTP
D. Active Directory
Answer: D

11. SNTP is a protocol used to:
A. Replace NetBIOS
B. Synchronize time
C. Transfer mail
D. Register and resolve host names
Answer: B

12. WINS is _______ in a Windows 2000 environment.
A. Available, but may be turned off
B. Removed completely
C. Used in preference to Active Directory
D. Replaced by Browser protocol
Answer: A

13. Active Directory is a _______ directory service.
A. Linear
B. Flat
C. Embedded object
D. Hierarchical
Answer: D

14. Direct Hosting (SMBTCP) is a protocol "shim" used to:
A. Replace NetBIOS
B. Access directory services
C. Authenticate
D. Register and resolve host names
Answer: A

15. _______ is accessed via LDAP protocols.
A. LSARPC
B. Active Directory
C. HTTP
D. Kerberos
Answer: B

16. Which term describes a database of forest-wide information that holds an abbreviated listing of Active Directory Information?
A. Trees
B. Global Catalog
C. Enhanced DNS
D. Realms
Answer: B